266 terms beginning with G.
An intent to inflict serious physical injury short of death that satisfies the malice aforethought element of common law murder when paired with an unlawful killing.
A pledge or other thing deposited as security for the performance of an obligation. The holder of the gage may retain it until the underlying duty is fulfilled and may enforce rights in the property upon default.
A constitutional definition of income under the Sixteenth Amendment that encompasses the gain derived from capital, from labor, or from both combined. Realization through a taxable event converts the gain into income subject to federal taxation.
A wagering scheme in which participants stake value on the outcome of a contest or event with uncertain results.
A contest whose outcome is determined primarily by luck rather than skill of the participants. The classification turns on which element dominates the result.
A provider of sperm or eggs for use in assisted reproduction. Legal parentage turns on compliance with statutory writing requirements or agreements rather than genetic contribution alone.
A reproductive technology procedure in which eggs and sperm are placed directly into the fallopian tubes to allow fertilization to occur naturally within the body.
A medical procedure in which mature eggs are placed in a woman's fallopian tubes along with sperm so that fertilization occurs inside the body.
An adjective describing property interests or rights acquired or held under the community property regime of certain jurisdictions. The label applies to assets that spouses own in undivided one-half shares by operation of marital property law rather than by title or separate acquisition.
A form of marital property regime derived from Spanish civil law under which assets acquired during marriage through the efforts of either spouse are owned equally by both spouses in undivided halves. At dissolution the assets are divided in just proportions after considering statutory factors such as each spouse's contributions to acquisition and appreciation, homemaker services, and the duration of the marriage. The regime treats marriage as a public contract that incorporates sharing rules unless the spouses contract otherwise.
A historical Law French term for a warrantor of land. The garauntor was obligated to defend the title and seisin of the alienee. If the alienee was evicted, the garauntor had to provide the alienee with other land of equal value.
Wardship or custody of a person.
A judgment creditor who obtains a writ of garnishment directing a third party holding assets of the judgment debtor to pay those assets over to satisfy the judgment.
A judicial function requiring the trial court to screen proffered expert testimony to ensure it is both relevant and reliable before it reaches the factfinder. Reliability is evaluated through a flexible inquiry that may examine whether the expert's theory or method has been tested, subjected to peer review, shown to have a known error rate, governed by standards, or generally accepted in the field. The court may also exclude an opinion when an analytical gap exists between the data and the conclusion offered.
A judicial screening role that requires a court to determine whether proffered expert testimony is both relevant and reliable before it reaches the trier of fact. Reliability is evaluated through a flexible, case-specific inquiry that may consider whether the expert's theory or method has been tested, subjected to peer review and publication, shown to have a known or potential error rate, governed by controlling standards, or generally accepted in the relevant field.
A judicial function performed by trial courts to screen proposed expert testimony for reliability and relevance before it reaches the jury. The court must determine whether the opinion rests on sufficient facts or data, employs reliable principles and methods, and applies those methods reliably to the case at hand. An appellate court reviews the trial court's decision for abuse of discretion.
A technological mechanism for verifying user age to restrict minors' access to online content. The absence of reliable mechanisms of this kind prevents content-based restrictions from being narrowly tailored because they function as a complete prohibition on adults' receipt of protected speech.
A fiduciary appointed by a court to make decisions regarding the support, care, education, health, and welfare of a minor or adult individual. The appointment removes or limits the ward's legal capacity to act independently in specified matters such as contracts or property transfers.
A historical tax paid to the Crown under Anglo-Saxon and Norman kings.
A historical local judicial assembly or public meeting.
An attitude or practice resulting in unequal treatment or stereotyping of individuals based on sex. Such bias supports an equal protection violation only when it reflects purposeful discrimination rather than mere disparate impact from a neutral rule.
Unconstitutional government action that intentionally classifies individuals on the basis of sex. Such classifications receive intermediate scrutiny and survive only when substantially related to an important governmental interest.
A characteristic treated as a protected basis for prohibiting harassment or discrimination in rules governing lawyer and judicial conduct as well as in employment statutes.
An agent authorized to conduct a series of transactions involving a continuity of service. The classification turns on whether the principal has granted authority for repeated dealings linked by an ongoing relationship rather than isolated or conditional tasks.
The inherent power of an agent to bind the principal derived solely from the agency relation and existing for the protection of persons harmed by or dealing with the agent when the agent is the general manager in charge of the entire business.
An agent authorized to conduct a series of transactions involving a continuity of service. This classification turns on the ongoing character of the agent's role rather than the number of acts performed.
A power of appointment under which the donee may currently appoint property to herself, her creditors, her estate, or the creditors of her estate. The power is presently exercisable when the donee holds authority to act immediately rather than only at death. It qualifies as a power of withdrawal unless the holder acts as trustee under an ascertainable standard or must obtain consent from a trustee or adverse party.
A distinction in criminal law between the mental state needed for most offenses and the heightened mental state required for certain inchoate or property crimes. General intent requires only the purposeful performance of the prohibited act. Specific intent requires an additional purpose to achieve a particular result or consequence beyond commission of the act itself.
An act by which a defendant participates in litigation without restricting the appearance to challenging jurisdiction. Such participation waives objections to personal jurisdiction and subjects the defendant to an in personam judgment.
A law or policy that applies uniformly to all persons or conduct within its scope without singling out religious practices for special burdens or granting officials discretionary authority to create exemptions. Such laws trigger only rational-basis review under the Free Exercise Clause when they incidentally burden religion.
A statutory mechanism that allows a principal to grant an agent broad powers by referencing descriptive terms for subject areas in a power of attorney. The reference incorporates the full statutory powers associated with those subjects as if set out in full.
A component of factual causation in toxic tort and products liability cases. It consists of a substance's capacity to cause the type of injury or disease at issue in the general population.
A body of judge-made rules that federal courts applied in diversity cases without regard to the decisions of the state in which they sat. Federal courts selected the rule they deemed the best or most widely accepted among common law jurisdictions rather than following any single state's precedents.
An established practice that prevails throughout a country and serves as a source of law.
Compensatory damages awarded for a harm that so frequently results from the tort or breach that its existence is normally anticipated. The plaintiff therefore need not specially allege or prove the harm to recover these damages.
A testamentary disposition usually of a specified amount of money or quantity of property that is payable from the general assets of the estate. Classification as a general devise determines the order of abatement and whether the gift survives changes in the estate assets.
A testamentary disposition usually of a specified amount of money or quantity of property that is payable from the general assets of the estate. Classification turns on whether the will identifies a particular asset or instead directs payment from the estate as a whole without limitation to any specific fund.
A historical body of judge-made rules that federal courts developed and applied in diversity cases before 1938. The doctrine permitted federal courts to disregard state substantive law and instead fashion independent federal rules of decision for common-law claims.
An estate in land of potentially infinite duration created by a conveyance limiting succession to the issue of the grantee. The estate remains subject to divestment in favor of the grantor or a designated third party until the birth of issue satisfying the condition, after which the holder possesses full inter vivos powers of alienation equivalent to those of a fee simple absolute owner.
A constitutional standard authorizing Congress to tax and spend to promote the common benefit of the nation as a whole.
A court's authority to adjudicate any and all claims against a defendant regardless of where those claims arose. For a corporation the authority exists only where the corporation is at home, meaning its place of incorporation or principal place of business, absent truly exceptional circumstances that render another forum a surrogate home.
A residual category of personal property that includes things in action. The category covers all personal property other than accounts, chattel paper, commercial tort claims, deposit accounts, documents, goods, instruments, investment property, letter-of-credit rights, letters of credit, money, and oil, gas, or other minerals before extraction. The category expressly includes controllable electronic records, payment intangibles, and software.
A residual category of personal property under Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code that encompasses intangible assets not classified elsewhere as accounts, chattel paper, commercial tort claims, deposit accounts, documents, goods, instruments, investment property, letter-of-credit rights, letters of credit, money, or oil, gas, or other minerals before extraction. The category expressly includes controllable electronic records, payment intangibles, and software.
A record in which a business enters every transaction that does not fit into a specialized journal such as a cash receipts journal or sales journal. Each entry records the date, a description of the transaction, and equal debits and credits.
A court's authority to adjudicate any claim against a defendant regardless of whether the claim arises from the defendant's contacts with the forum. For a corporation the authority exists only where the corporation is at home, meaning its place of incorporation or principal place of business, absent exceptional circumstances that render the corporation essentially at home elsewhere.
A form of verdict in which the jury decides the overall outcome on liability and damages. The court may accompany the form with written questions on discrete factual issues and must supply instructions enabling the jury to return both the verdict and the answers.
A body of unwritten common-law principles drawn from natural-law traditions and judicial precedents that federal courts applied independently of any particular state's decisions in diversity cases before Erie Railroad Co. v. Tompkins.
A price at which goods of the same kind are bought and sold in the relevant market. Courts turn first to this price when measuring damages for a seller's nondelivery or repudiation under the UCC.
A high-ranking official who holds an office of trust, authority, or command under a national, state, or local government and is authorized to exercise a specific function.
A partner in a partnership who participates in management, shares profits and losses, and bears personal liability for the entity's debts and obligations.
A partner in a limited partnership who manages the business and bears unlimited personal liability for the partnership's obligations. A general partner may bind the partnership in the ordinary course of its activities and owes fiduciary duties of loyalty and care to the partnership and other partners.
A form of personal jurisdiction that permits a court to adjudicate any claim against a defendant regardless of where the claim arose. For a corporation the doctrine requires affiliations so continuous and systematic as to render the entity essentially at home in the forum. Absent exceptional circumstances that standard is satisfied only in the corporation's state of incorporation and its principal place of business.
A municipal document that establishes zones for different types of development, uses, traffic patterns, and future growth. Amendments to zoning ordinances must remain consistent with the plan and bear a substantial relation to public health, safety, or general welfare.
A coordinated scheme for developing a tract of land under which conveyance of parcels implies reciprocal servitudes benefiting and burdening all lots within the plan. The existence of the plan is a question of fact determined from circumstances such as recorded plats, uniform deed restrictions, or consistent marketing materials. Each lot included in the plan becomes the implied beneficiary of servitudes imposed to carry out the scheme unless facts indicate contrary intent.
A state's inherent authority to enact legislation promoting the public health, safety, morals, or general welfare. The power extends to reasonable regulations of land use, business practices, and individual conduct so long as the measures bear a substantial relation to those public ends and do not violate federal constitutional limits.
An authority granted to a donee permitting appointment of property to the donee, the donee's estate, the donee's creditors, or the creditors of the donee's estate. The power is presently exercisable unless the creating instrument imposes a requirement of consent by a trustee or adverse party or limits the trustee's exercise by an ascertainable standard.
A power of appointment that permits the donee to appoint the subject property to the donee, the donee's estate, the donee's creditors, or the creditors of the donee's estate. The power remains general even if it may also be exercised in favor of others. Language creating a power is construed as general unless it expressly prohibits exercise in favor of the donee, the donee's estate, and the creditors of either.
A power of appointment that the donee may exercise at once to appoint property to the donee, the donee's creditors, the donee's estate, or the creditors of the donee's estate. The power is presently exercisable when the donee holds it without condition or future contingency and may use it for the donee's own benefit. Exclusions apply when the power is held by a trustee and limited by an ascertainable standard or when exercise requires consent of a trustee or adverse party.
A broad authority to appoint or direct property to any person including the holder or the holder's creditors. The authority is presently exercisable unless limited by an ascertainable standard or requiring consent of an adverse party.
A power that permits the donee to appoint the subject property to any person or persons, including the donee, the donee's creditors, or the donee's estate.
A power of appointment that permits the donee to appoint property immediately to the donee, the donee's creditors, the donee's estate, or the creditors of the donee's estate. The power qualifies as presently exercisable when the donee holds unilateral authority without conditions such as trustee consent or an ascertainable standard limiting exercise to health, education, support, or maintenance.
A power of appointment that the holder may exercise at any time to appoint property to the holder, the holder's estate, or the creditors of either.
A constitutional limitation under the Eighth Amendment requiring that the severity of a criminal sentence not be grossly disproportionate to the gravity of the offense committed.
Distribution of an author's work to the public at large, as opposed to a selected group, that dedicates the work to the public. Before the Copyright Act of 1976, such distribution terminated common-law copyright protection even if restrictions on use were imposed.
A person who has achieved such pervasive fame or notoriety that the individual becomes a public figure for all purposes. The status triggers the actual malice standard in defamation actions concerning the individual's conduct or fitness.
A reprisal by which a nation directs all its military officers and citizens to redress an injury caused by another nation. The mechanism authorizes seizure of the offending nation's property wherever it is found.
A principle requiring that a person act purposely, knowingly, recklessly, or negligently with respect to each material element of an offense before criminal liability attaches. The principle supplies the default mental states when a statute is silent and determines how those states apply across all elements unless the law plainly indicates otherwise.
A clause in a will that disposes of all property not specifically devised or bequeathed elsewhere in the instrument. The clause operates as a catch-all to prevent partial intestacy by directing any remaining assets to designated takers. Under applicable statutes a general residuary clause also serves as an alternative devise for a nonresiduary gift when the will expressly routes a lapsed or failed specific devise into the residue.
A baseline legal principle that governs a class of cases or circumstances unless a specific exception applies. The principle supplies the starting point for analysis and controls when no qualifying exception is shown.
A constitutional standard for personal jurisdiction that requires a defendant to have minimum contacts with the forum state such that maintaining the suit does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice.
A contractual stipulation expressed through broad nonspecific language such as an assignment of the contract or of all rights under the contract. Such language effects an assignment of rights and a delegation of unperformed duties unless the circumstances indicate otherwise. Acceptance by the assignee creates an enforceable promise to perform those duties.
A power of appointment exercisable only by the donee's will that permits appointment of the subject property to the donee, the donee's creditors, the donee's estate, or the creditors of the donee's estate.
A power that permits the donee to appoint property by will to the donee, the donee's estate, the donee's creditors, or any other person or entity. The power is treated as the equivalent of ownership for purposes such as creditor claims when the donee created the power and for the surviving spouse's elective share when the donee was also the donor.
A power of appointment exercisable only by will that permits the donee to appoint the subject property to the donee, the donee's estate, or the donee's creditors. The power is treated as the functional equivalent of ownership for purposes such as the disposition of ineffectively appointed property and the elective share rights of a surviving spouse when the donee created the power.
A jury verdict that reports only which party prevails without disclosing the jury's specific factual findings or reasoning.
A jury verdict that announces the jury's ultimate conclusion on liability and damages. The court may accompany the verdict form with written questions on discrete factual issues that the jury must also answer in writing.
A covenant in a deed by which the grantor promises to defend the grantee against claims by all persons. The covenant encompasses promises of seisin, right to convey, against encumbrances, quiet enjoyment, and warranty. It runs with the land so that successors may enforce it against the original grantor.
A deed that conveys land while containing covenants warranting title against all defects arising before or during the grantor's ownership. The covenants typically include seisin, right to convey, against encumbrances, quiet enjoyment, warranty, and sometimes further assurance. These covenants run with the land and permit later grantees to recover from the original grantor for breaches.
A constitutional grant of authority to Congress to lay and collect taxes in order to pay debts and provide for the common defense and general welfare of the United States. The clause supplies an independent basis for federal spending programs that advance national interests, including those implemented through conditional grants to the states.
A doctrinal distinction in criminal law that classifies offenses according to the mental state required for liability. General intent crimes require only the intent to perform the prohibited act. Specific intent crimes demand proof of an additional purpose or objective beyond the actus reus itself.
A claim of injury shared in substantially equal measure by all citizens that does not satisfy the injury-in-fact requirement for Article III standing. Such a claim typically asserts only an abstract interest in having the government follow the law or in proper governmental procedures. The principle bars federal courts from adjudicating disputes that amount to policy disagreements better addressed by the political branches.
An asserted injury shared in substantially equal measure by all or most citizens that lacks the particularization required for Article III standing. Such claims rest on a bare interest in lawful government action rather than a distinct personal harm.
An adverb qualifying a legal statement, rule, or fact to indicate that it holds in the ordinary course or applies to the typical case without enumerating every exception.
A factor used to evaluate the reliability of expert testimony under Federal Rule of Evidence 702. It asks whether the expert's theory or methodology enjoys widespread recognition and endorsement within the relevant scientific or technical community.
A law or regulation that applies uniformly to all persons or conduct within its scope without singling out religious practices or granting individualized exemptions.
A legal rule that binds every individual equally regardless of religious affiliation or practice. The rule operates without individualized exemptions or selective enforcement that favors secular conduct over comparable religious conduct.
A law that regulates conduct without reference to religion and applies uniformly to all persons or entities regardless of religious affiliation. Such a law remains enforceable even when compliance incidentally conflicts with a religious practice. The Free Exercise Clause does not require exemptions from these laws absent evidence that the government targeted religion for disfavored treatment.
An adjudicative fact qualifies as generally known when it is common knowledge throughout the territorial jurisdiction of the trial court. Such a fact is not subject to reasonable dispute and may therefore be judicially noticed without formal proof.
A condition establishing grounds for an involuntary bankruptcy petition when a debtor fails to pay its debts as they become due. This ground replaced earlier acts of bankruptcy to focus on whether financial failure has become general and affects the body of creditors as a whole.
A single degree or stage in the succession of persons in natural descent. The term identifies the horizontal tier of descendants relative to a designated ancestor for purposes of dividing property under rules of representation or per stirpes.
General or common rather than specific or distinctive.
A misdemeanor that occurs when a person corruptly gives, offers, or agrees to give anything of value, or corruptly requests, receives, or agrees to receive anything of value, in exchange for official action.
A felony consisting of a taking of personal property of another from the victim's body or immediate presence accomplished by force or intimidation with intent to permanently deprive the victim of the property.
A person who shares genetic material with another individual through biological reproduction.
The man whose sperm impregnated the child's biological mother. Constitutional protection of an unmarried genetic father's parental interest requires actual manifestations of responsibility such as admitting paternity, providing support, or developing a relationship with the child.
A parent who contributes genetic material to a child by providing sperm or an egg. The designation controls class-gift construction and parentage adjudication unless language or circumstances indicate a contrary intention by the transferor.
A woman who is not an intended parent and who agrees to become pregnant through assisted reproduction using her own gamete under a genetic surrogacy agreement. The agreement must satisfy statutory requirements for execution and validation to determine resulting parentage under applicable state law.
A woman who is not an intended parent and who agrees to become pregnant through assisted reproduction using her own gamete under a genetic surrogacy agreement.
Laboratory analysis of DNA samples used to identify biological parentage. Genetic testing may not be used to challenge the parentage of an individual who is a parent under assisted reproduction provisions or to establish the parentage of a donor. A child-support agency may order genetic testing only if there is no presumed, acknowledged, or adjudicated parent other than the woman who gave birth, and neither a court nor agency may order in utero genetic testing.
The peoples or nations of the world, particularly the civilized peoples. The term supplies the foundation for the law of nations that Congress may define and punish under its enumerated powers.
Authentic or real rather than pretended or fabricated.
A disagreement between parties over a fact that bears directly on the outcome of a claim or defense. The disagreement must be supported by admissible evidence in the record rather than by bare assertions or speculation.
A factual conflict that precludes summary judgment when the evidence viewed in the light most favorable to the nonmovant would permit a reasonable jury to return a verdict for that party.
A factual disagreement that precludes summary judgment. The disagreement qualifies as genuine when the record contains evidence permitting a reasonable jury to return a verdict for the nonmoving party. The disagreement qualifies as material when the fact would affect the outcome under the governing substantive law.
A factual dispute that prevents entry of summary judgment. The dispute qualifies as genuine when the record contains evidence permitting a reasonable jury to return a verdict for the nonmoving party. The dispute qualifies as material when the fact at issue could affect the outcome under the governing substantive law.
A factual dispute that precludes summary judgment. The dispute must concern a fact that could affect the outcome under the governing substantive law and must be supported by evidence sufficient for a reasonable jury to return a verdict for the nonmoving party.
A procedural threshold that precludes summary judgment when the record contains evidence permitting a reasonable jury to return a verdict for the nonmoving party on a fact that could affect the outcome under the governing substantive law. The movant must first cite materials showing the absence of such a dispute before the burden shifts to the nonmovant to produce contrary admissible evidence.
Disputed facts that bear directly on an element of a claim or defense and that a reasonable jury could resolve in favor of either party. Such facts preclude summary judgment because they require trial resolution rather than decision as a matter of law.
A general class comprising several species or divisions. In legal usage the terms genus and species invoke taxonomic classification to group related doctrines or offenses under a broader category while distinguishing narrower instances within it.
A quality of relevance or pertinence to the issue under consideration. The quality determines whether evidence, argument, or a factor may be introduced or weighed in a proceeding.
A form of industrial design protection under German law obtained by registration without substantive examination. The registration makes the design publicly available and qualifies the protected design as prior art in United States patent proceedings.
A period of pregnancy measured from conception to birth. An individual in gestation at a decedent's death who lives at least 120 hours after birth is deemed to have been living at the time of death for purposes of intestate succession and related allowances.
The time between the start of a pregnancy and birth. This interval determines whether a child in utero at a relevant legal moment qualifies as living for purposes such as intestate succession or measuring lives under the rule against perpetuities.
A document signed by a husband under Jewish religious law that effects a divorce and releases the wife from the marital obligations of the ketubah.
A voluntary transfer of property to another without compensation. The transfer requires donative intent, delivery, and acceptance to be complete and irrevocable.
A voluntary transfer of property without consideration from one living person to another that takes effect immediately and is irrevocable. The transfer requires donative intent on the part of the donor, delivery of the property, and acceptance by the donee.
A clause in a donative instrument that identifies the persons who receive appointive property if a power of appointment is not effectively exercised. The clause supplies the disposition when the donee fails to make a valid appointment or when no appointment occurs.
A clause in a donative instrument that designates the persons who receive appointive property when a power of appointment is not effectively exercised.
Conditional transfers of property given by one engaged person to the other in anticipation of a future marriage ceremony. Courts treat such gifts as subject to an implied condition that the ceremonial marriage actually occur. If the marriage does not take place, the donor may recover the property regardless of which party ended the engagement.
A gratuitous transfer of personal property made voluntarily by a living donor to a donee without consideration. The transfer must be presently effective upon delivery and acceptance rather than taking effect at a future time or upon death.
An inter vivos transfer of ownership in tangible or intangible personal property from a donor to a donee that becomes complete upon delivery and acceptance. The transfer may reduce or eliminate a corresponding devise under a will when the donor contemporaneously indicates in writing that the gift is intended to operate as satisfaction of the devise.
A verb phrase requiring one legal interest or rule to defer to another of superior priority. The phrase identifies the outcome when two valid claims cannot coexist and the lesser must step aside.
A directive or action by which a party in litigation begins or continues presenting evidence or arguments to the court.
The prevailing or current market value of goods, securities, or other property.
A historical daily court procedure in which the court asked all barristers present whether they had motions to present. The practice followed an order of seniority except on the final day of a term when junior barristers spoke first. It ended in 1873.
An obligation in a contract for the sale of land requiring the seller to deliver title that is free from reasonable doubt and that a reasonably prudent purchaser with full knowledge of the facts would accept. Title defects such as unreleased liens, breaks in the chain of title, or outstanding interests may render the title unmarketable and allow the buyer to rescind or refuse performance if the seller cannot cure by closing. Some contracts substitute the less demanding standard of insurable title, which a reputable title insurer will cover at standard rates.
Something of value such as an act, a forbearance, or a return promise bargained for and received by a promisor from a promisee. The exchange must involve a measurable economic detriment or benefit that the law recognizes as sufficient to support enforcement of a promise.
A quality standard requiring that construction or services be performed with reasonable skill and care so the result is fit for its intended use. In the sale of new residential construction the standard supports an implied warranty that the home is designed and built in a reasonably workmanlike manner and is suitable for human habitation.
A constitutional standard that permits federal judges to hold their offices for life. The standard subjects judges to removal only through impeachment for misconduct rather than at the pleasure of the political branches.
A constitutional requirement that federal judges hold their offices during good behaviour. This standard supplies life tenure subject to removal only through impeachment for misconduct.
A legally sufficient reason that justifies a court in excusing noncompliance with a procedural requirement or in authorizing a specified action such as extending time or permitting late filing.
A judicial standard that permits a court to excuse a party's failure to meet a procedural deadline or requirement when the failure stems from mistake, inadvertence, or other reasonable grounds that justify relief from the default.
A standard in unemployment compensation law under which an employee who voluntarily leaves a job remains eligible for benefits only when the resignation stems from employer conduct such as harassment, discrimination, unsafe conditions, or unequal pay rather than purely personal considerations.
A justification for an employee's voluntary resignation that is connected to the employer's actions, policies, or working conditions rather than purely personal reasons. The justification must be bona fide and employment-related to preserve eligibility for unemployment benefits in states requiring this showing. Wholly personal motives do not qualify.
A judicially recognized basis for excusing noncompliance with a procedural deadline or requirement. The exception permits a court to overlook a party's failure to act timely when circumstances justify relief and the opposing party suffers no incurable prejudice. Courts apply the exception sparingly to preserve orderly litigation while avoiding manifest injustice.
A procedural allowance by which a court excuses a party's failure to meet a deadline or other requirement. The allowance applies when the party demonstrates a sufficient justification that outweighs the prejudice to the opposing side or the interests of orderly administration.
A procedural standard authorizing a court to excuse a party's failure to meet a deadline or other requirement when the party demonstrates sufficient justification.
A justification sufficient to permit a court to excuse noncompliance with a procedural requirement or to grant relief from a deadline or restriction. The justification must demonstrate adequate reasons tied to the specific circumstances of the default or request.
A flexible judicial standard that permits a court to excuse noncompliance with procedural requirements or deadlines when the moving party demonstrates sufficient justification. The standard balances the need for orderly process against fairness in individual cases. Courts apply it to late filings, missed notices, and similar defaults.
A delivery of securities that satisfies the basic conditions for valid transfer of title. The conditions require that the certificate be in good physical condition, that it belong to the person making the transfer, that it be properly endorsed, and that any documents necessary to establish negotiability accompany the certificate.
A state of mind consisting in honesty in belief or purpose, faithfulness to duty or obligation, and observance of reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing without intent to defraud or seek unconscionable advantage.
An implied contractual obligation requiring each party to act honestly and refrain from conduct that would deprive the other party of the fruits of the agreement. The duty applies to performance and enforcement and is measured by honesty in fact together with observance of reasonable commercial standards.
A contractual obligation requiring each party to act honestly and fairly when performing and enforcing an agreement. The duty prevents one party from undermining the benefits the other reasonably expected to receive. It applies to all contracts and cannot be eliminated by agreement, although parties may prescribe reasonable standards for measuring compliance.
A statutory protection that shields a non-beneficiary third party from liability when the party assists or transacts with a fiduciary such as a trustee or personal representative. The protection applies when the third party acts without knowledge that the fiduciary is exceeding or improperly exercising powers and provides value in the exchange. The third party is treated as if the fiduciary had acted with proper authority.
A standard of conduct requiring parties to a contract to act honestly and fairly toward each other when performing or enforcing the agreement.
A standard of conduct requiring honest dealing without knowledge of facts that would make the action improper, combined with the exercise of reasonable diligence and prudence under the circumstances.
A sincere and honest mental state held without knowledge of facts indicating wrongdoing or without improper motive. The standard requires an absence of bad faith or reckless disregard of contrary information. It functions as a prerequisite or defense in contexts ranging from contract performance to procedural compliance and property claims.
An obligation requiring parties in legal relationships to act honestly and fairly without intent to defraud or take unconscionable advantage. The duty is measured by whether the actor had a legitimate basis for the conduct and avoided bad-faith manipulation of rules or rights.
An obligation or standard requiring parties to act honestly and diligently when performing duties or exercising rights under law or contract. The standard typically demands a reasonable inquiry or basis for action and precludes pretextual or abusive conduct.
A duty imposed on each party to a contract or partnership agreement requiring honest performance and fair dealing when carrying out obligations and enforcing rights. The duty prevents a party from using technical language or discretion to deprive the other of the expected benefits of the bargain. It applies even when the agreement grants broad discretion and cannot be eliminated by agreement.
An implied contractual obligation requiring each party to perform its duties honestly and fairly without undermining the other party's expected benefits from the agreement. The duty arises from the parties' intentions as revealed by the circumstances and operates through interpretation and gap filling. It rules out uncooperative conduct even when express terms do not address the issue.
A purchaser who acquires property for value in good faith and without notice of prior claims or defects in title.
A purchaser who acquires an interest in property in good faith, for valuable consideration, and without notice of prior claims or defects in title. The status shields the purchaser from unrecorded or defective prior interests under recording acts and related doctrines that allocate priority among competing claimants.
A purchaser who acquires property for value without actual or constructive notice of prior claims or title defects. Such a purchaser receives priority under recording acts and related doctrines that protect reliance on the state of title at the time of acquisition.
Conduct by which a party acts upon a legal instrument, permit, representation, or process with an honest belief in its validity or applicability. The belief must be objectively reasonable under the circumstances and typically shields the relying party from liability, loss of rights, or other adverse consequences when the instrument or process later proves defective or is invalidated.
A duty imposed upon each party to a contract to perform and enforce the agreement honestly and fairly so as not to deprive the other party of the expected benefits.
A doctrinal standard requiring a party to act honestly and without improper motive or knowledge of facts that would render the conduct wrongful when exercising a legal right or fulfilling an obligation.
An ownership interest in property that is free from valid defects or adverse claims. In a land contract the seller must deliver good title at closing, though many contracts impose the stricter marketable-title standard instead.
An intangible asset consisting of the established reputation, customer relationships, and expected future patronage of a business. The asset can be transferred separately from other property in a sale or disposition and can serve as a basis for damages when lost through breach or tortious conduct. Its value is often difficult to quantify with precision.
A legal contention advanced by counsel that rests on a reasonable basis in law and fact and is not frivolous. Such an argument may seek an extension, modification, or reversal of existing precedent while remaining grounded in good-faith analysis of the governing authorities.
A standard of conduct requiring honest and reasonable behavior in fulfilling a legal obligation or exercising a right. The actor must proceed without intent to deceive or evade duties and after making a reasonable inquiry or attempt appropriate to the context.
A legal principle requiring parties to proceed honestly and without intent to deceive or exploit. It demands reasonable inquiry and fair conduct before taking adverse action such as acceleration, dismissal, or compulsion of testimony. Courts and statutes invoke the principle to limit liability or deny relief when a party has relied on apparently valid information or has made a diligent effort to comply with legal requirements.
A legal requirement that a party act honestly and without improper motive when exercising rights or performing obligations. The standard evaluates whether conduct reflects a genuine effort to comply with legal duties rather than an attempt to exploit technicalities or cause harm. It serves as a precondition for enforcing certain remedies or protections.
Tangible or movable personal property other than money. Articles of trade or merchandise fall within this category when identified to a sales contract.
A category of tangible movable personal property other than money or real estate. The phrase identifies items capable of physical possession and asportation that qualify as subjects of common-law theft offenses and related property doctrines.
Goods that a seller has designated as the particular items to which a sales contract refers. Designation occurs when the seller marks, sets aside, or begins production of the items for the buyer. Identification creates a special property interest in the buyer and enables specific remedies such as recovery of the price or replevin.
A purchase or contract to purchase goods made by a buyer in good faith and without unreasonable delay after a seller's breach to replace those due under the contract. The buyer may recover the difference between the cost of the substitute goods and the contract price together with incidental or consequential damages less expenses saved.
Identified things attached to realty that qualify as goods under Article 2 of the UCC when severed from the land by the seller. Severance by the buyer instead leaves the transaction outside Article 2 and subject to common-law rules.
An intangible asset representing the value of a business beyond its tangible assets that arises from reputation, customer loyalty, and ongoing operations.
A document directing the disposition of property upon a person's death or other triggering event. It encompasses wills, trust agreements, insurance policies with beneficiary designations, deeds, and similar instruments that control the transfer of assets.
The body of legal rules that a court or other decision maker must apply to resolve a dispute or interpret an instrument. The governing law may be selected by the parties in a contract or will or determined by statutory or common law choice of law rules when the parties have not made an effective selection.
A contractual provision that designates the substantive law of a particular jurisdiction to govern disputes arising under the agreement.
The sovereign power in a nation or state. An organization through which a body of people exercise political authority and the structure of principles and rules determining how that authority is regulated.
An administrative division of government authorized to implement statutes through rulemaking, adjudication, or enforcement actions.
A demand by the government for conveyance of a property interest or payment of money as a condition for issuing a land-use permit. The demand triggers Takings Clause scrutiny unless it bears an essential nexus to legitimate governmental interests that would justify outright denial of the permit and is roughly proportional to the impacts of the proposed development.
A constitutional protection that shields states from private suits seeking damages in federal or state courts absent consent or valid congressional abrogation under Section Five of the Fourteenth Amendment.
An entity through which a government exercises its authority or performs public functions, treated as a government agency under lawyer conflict-of-interest rules.
Land owned or controlled by a governmental entity. The owner may invite public use of the land or facilities located on it. Regulations governing such land are distinct from private servitudes.
Attorneys employed by governmental bodies who face specialized ethical constraints on subsequent private representation in matters they handled or supervised while in public service. Disqualification of lawyers associated in a firm with such former or current government lawyers is governed by Rule 1.11 rather than ordinary imputation rules.
A foundational constitutional principle requiring that all governmental actions affecting life, liberty, or property occur only according to established legal rules rather than the arbitrary discretion of officials. The principle ensures that legal remedies exist for violations of vested rights and that courts may review executive or legislative acts for compliance with law.
A foundational constitutional principle requiring that governmental power be exercised only in accordance with established legal rules rather than personal discretion. The principle ensures that officials act within legal bounds and that remedies exist for violations of vested rights.
A record or statement of a public office setting out the office's activities, a matter observed while under a legal duty to report, or factual findings from a legally authorized investigation. The exception to the hearsay rule for such records requires that the opponent not show the source of information or other circumstances indicate a lack of trustworthiness.
A category of expression attributable to the government itself rather than to private speakers. The government may select and control its own messages without Free Speech Clause scrutiny even when it accepts assistance from private sources. Such speech remains subject to other constitutional limits such as the Establishment Clause.
A doctrine under which expression properly attributed to the government is exempt from Free Speech Clause scrutiny. The government may select and control the content of its own messages without facing viewpoint discrimination claims. Attribution turns on factors such as government control over selection, installation, and presentation.
Conduct by a governmental entity or by a private party whose actions are fairly attributable to the state. Such conduct triggers constitutional limits including due process and equal protection when it affects protected rights or interests.
Action taken by a government official or private party whose conduct is fairly attributable to the state under constitutional standards.
A government agency's conduct that is expressly or impliedly mandated or authorized by constitution, statute, or other law and that is carried out for the benefit of the general public. Traditional examples include police and fire protection as well as jury selection and waste management when performed by public entities.
A category of state and local activities once invoked to determine whether federal statutes enacted under the Commerce Clause impermissibly regulated traditional state operations. The category proved unworkable as a judicially enforceable limit and was abandoned in favor of political-process protections for state sovereignty.
A doctrine shielding governmental entities and officials from private lawsuits for damages absent consent or statutory waiver. The protection extends to states under the Eleventh Amendment and related principles, barring suits in federal court by citizens of the state or other states, in state courts on federal claims enacted under Article I, and in the courts of sister states.
A common-law doctrine shielding governmental entities from tort liability or private damages actions unless the entity consents to suit or Congress validly abrogates the protection. The doctrine traces to English common law and bars suits against states and their subdivisions in both federal and state courts on federal claims when Congress acts under Article I powers.
An objective pursued by a government that may justify restrictions on constitutional rights or determine the applicable law in choice-of-law analysis. The objective must be legitimate or compelling depending on the level of scrutiny applied to the government action. Courts assess whether the objective is genuine and whether the means chosen advance it without unnecessary infringement on protected interests.
A constitutional standard of review that subjects governmental action employing suspect classifications or burdening fundamental rights to strict scrutiny. The government must demonstrate that the action is narrowly tailored to further a compelling governmental interest.
An objective or policy concern advanced by a government to justify regulatory measures or to support application of its law in multistate disputes. Courts assess whether the interest is legitimate, important, or compelling and whether the challenged action is tailored to advance it.
A choice-of-law methodology that identifies the policies underlying the laws of interested states and determines which state has a legitimate interest in having its law applied to the particular issue.
Expression attributable to the government itself, including messages conveyed through permanent monuments on public land, specialty license plates, or programs funded to advance official policy goals. The government may select and control the content of such speech without triggering Free Speech Clause scrutiny or viewpoint-neutrality requirements.
A subdivision, agency, department, county, parish, municipality, or other unit of the government of the United States, a State, or a foreign country. The term includes an organization having a separate corporate existence if the organization is eligible to issue debt on which interest is exempt from income taxation under the laws of the United States.
A contractual period during which a party may cure a late payment or performance without triggering penalties, forfeiture, or acceleration of the full obligation. The period is often set by the agreement or statute and requires timely cure to reinstate the original terms.
A classification of criminal offenses according to their level of seriousness. The classification typically divides felonies into first, second, or third degree and distinguishes them from misdemeanors or violations.
A category of persons or items grouped together based on shared characteristics or status for legal purposes such as determining rights or liabilities.
A step or level on a hierarchical scale used to measure the extent of risk or culpability.
A corrupt practice by which a public official obtains money or other advantages through the misuse of official position.
A sworn panel of knights summoned by judicial writ to decide disputes over the right to real property in a writ of right proceeding. Henry II introduced the procedure in the twelfth century to provide an alternative to trial by battle.
A felony classification of the common-law crime of false pretenses. The offense occurs when a defendant obtains title to another's property by a knowing false statement of past or existing fact made with intent to defraud, and the property value exceeds the statutory threshold separating grand from petit false pretenses.
An investigative proceeding conducted by a grand jury with broad authority to inquire into possible criminal conduct. The proceeding empowers the grand jury to compel testimony and documents without narrow limits based on relevance or probable outcome.
A panel of citizens convened to investigate potential criminal offenses and decide whether probable cause supports returning an indictment.
A person serving on a grand jury.
A body of citizens convened to investigate possible crimes and determine whether probable cause supports issuing an indictment against a person for a capital or otherwise infamous offense.
An investigative proceeding in which a grand jury examines evidence to decide whether probable cause supports an indictment. The proceeding operates ex parte and confers broad authority to subpoena witnesses and documents when conducted in good faith.
An investigative proceeding conducted by a body of citizens to determine whether probable cause supports returning an indictment for a capital or otherwise infamous crime. The Fifth Amendment requires such proceedings for serious federal offenses outside military contexts. Rules govern attendance, recording, secrecy, and limited disclosures of matters occurring before the grand jury.
A procedural device by which a grand jury compels witnesses to appear and testify or to produce documents and tangible evidence. The device operates largely free of Fourth Amendment restrictions and requires no showing of probable cause or reasonable suspicion.
A common-law theft offense arising when a defendant obtains title to the property of another by a knowing false statement of past or existing fact made with intent to defraud.
A preexisting land use that was lawful when initiated but later rendered nonconforming by zoning changes. The owner possesses a vested right to continue the use absent abandonment, extended discontinuance, or a valid amortization period.
To transfer title to real property from a grantor to a grantee by a deed containing words of conveyance and delivered with intent to pass title.
A voluntary statement or assertion made without obligation to speak. In judicial opinions, a court's expression of a legal principle broader than required to resolve the case or discussion of issues not presented by the record.
An act, undertaking, promise, or transfer performed or made without consideration or compensation. The absence of any bargained-for exchange distinguishes it from ordinary contractual or commercial dealings and often triggers specialized rules governing enforceability, liability, or validity.
An interest in property conveyed without consideration or bargained-for exchange. Protection of the transferor's expectations receives particular weight in choice-of-law analysis because such transfers typically involve forethought and consultation with counsel.
The extent and seriousness of injury or interference with another's protected interest. Courts weigh this factor against the utility of the actor's conduct to decide whether an intentional invasion of land use and enjoyment is unreasonable.
The extent and character of injury or interference with another's use and enjoyment of land. Courts weigh this factor against the utility of the actor's conduct to decide whether an intentional invasion is unreasonable.
A level of physical injury that is significant or substantial as opposed to minor or moderate harm. The injury creates a substantial risk of death or causes serious permanent disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.
An injury that creates a substantial risk of death or causes serious and protracted impairment, disfigurement, or extreme pain. A deliberate intent to cause such injury supplies implied malice for common-law murder.
A judicial review standard requiring courts to give significant weight to the factual findings and judgments of designated decision makers such as magistrates issuing warrants or executive officials in foreign affairs and national security. The standard limits reversal to cases where the underlying determination lacks a substantial basis or reflects clear error.
An implied right of access across neighboring land granted when a parcel becomes landlocked upon severance of common ownership. The claimant must demonstrate great necessity for the easement rather than mere convenience or absolute impossibility of alternative access.
A circumstance that arouses sudden and intense passion in an ordinary person and satisfies the objective and subjective requirements for mitigation at common law. The provocation must actually inflame the defendant, leave no reasonable time for cooling, and in fact prevent cooling before the killing occurs. Serious battery on the defendant or discovery of a spouse in the act of adultery qualifies as great provocation.
An elevated level of danger created by a defendant's gross deviation from the reasonable-person standard of care. This risk supports a finding of criminal negligence sufficient for involuntary manslaughter.
A judicial writ directing a custodian to produce a detained person before a court to determine the legality of the detention. The writ allows challenges to the authority for confinement, contest of factual findings, introduction of newly discovered exculpatory evidence, and an order of release when detention lacks legal basis.
A judicial order directing a custodian to produce a detained person before a court so that the legality of the detention may be examined. The writ protects individuals against arbitrary or unlawful imprisonment by requiring the government to justify continued custody before a neutral decisionmaker.
A standard of proof requiring the party bearing the burden to persuade the factfinder that a fact is more likely true than not. This standard governs most civil claims and affirmative defenses.
A constitutional guarantee protecting citizens' ability to seek redress from the government for perceived wrongs. The guarantee forms part of the First Amendment and bars laws that abridge the right to petition. Courts apply the guarantee when evaluating claims that government action retaliates against or burdens such petitions.
A category of physical injury whose consequences are so grave that they differ in kind from ordinary bodily harm. The category includes any harm creating a substantial risk of death, constituting mayhem, or causing permanent or protracted loss of function in an important organ or member.
Serious physical harm to a person's body. An intent to inflict such harm during an unlawful killing satisfies the malice aforethought element of common law murder even if the defendant did not intend death itself.
A high threshold for judicial intervention in directors' discretionary decisions such as dividend declarations. Courts will not override board action unless the directors acted with fraud or in a manner so egregious that it constitutes a gross abuse of discretion.
A measure of culpability under which conduct so far departs from the standard a reasonable or law-abiding person would observe in the actor's situation that the disregard or failure to perceive a substantial and unjustifiable risk of harm establishes criminal negligence or recklessness.
Conduct amounting to criminal negligence. It is a substantial departure from the care a reasonable person would exercise under the circumstances that creates a high risk of death or serious bodily harm.
A measure of culpability for recklessness or criminal negligence that requires the actor's conduct to depart substantially from what a law-abiding or reasonable person would observe in the same situation. The departure must involve conscious disregard of a substantial and unjustifiable risk of such a nature and degree that the disregard itself constitutes the gross deviation.
A standard governing challenges to foreclosure sales under which a price obtained in a regularly conducted proceeding does not render the foreclosure defective unless the price is so low that it shocks the conscience or indicates unfairness.
Conduct falling below the standard of care a reasonably prudent person would exercise under the circumstances by a severe margin that reflects reckless disregard for the safety or rights of others. The deviation exceeds ordinary negligence yet stops short of intentional wrongdoing. Courts and statutes apply this standard to limit liability shields in fiduciary and tort contexts.
A factor considered when determining whether to pierce the corporate veil. It consists of a corporation's failure to maintain capital sufficient for the risks and scale of its business undertakings. Courts weigh this factor along with commingling of assets, disregard of formalities, and domination by a controlling shareholder when assessing unity of interest and ownership.
A nonpossessory interest in land authorizing a limited use or enjoyment that benefits a particular person or entity rather than any dominant parcel. Commercial easements in gross are freely alienable. Their alienability when noncommercial depends on the manner and terms of creation. Acquisition of a fee interest in the servient land extinguishes the easement to the extent the fee owner can make the same uses.
A sanction or award so disproportionate to the gravity of the conduct or harm inflicted that it violates constitutional limits on excessive fines and punishments.
A foreclosure sale price obtained pursuant to a proceeding otherwise regularly conducted under applicable law. The price renders the foreclosure defective only when it meets the threshold of gross inadequacy.
A standard clause in liability insurance policies requiring the insurer to defend the insured against third-party suits alleging covered harms even when those claims lack factual support, rest on falsehoods, or involve deceit by the claimant.
A factual basis that permits one contracting party to demand adequate assurance of due performance from the other. The basis exists when circumstances create a reasonable belief that the other party will commit a breach by nonperformance sufficient to give rise to a claim for total breach damages. The demanding party may suspend its own performance until the assurance is received.
A basis for refusing to enforce an agreement or term because it conflicts with societal interests or legal norms protected by the law. Courts weigh the strength of the policy against the parties' expectations and the connection between the term and the prohibited conduct.
A small residential facility that houses individuals with disabilities or other special needs who live together under supervision as a single housekeeping unit.
A residential facility housing multiple unrelated persons with intellectual disabilities. Such facilities trigger equal protection analysis when local governments deny permits based solely on community prejudice toward the residents.
A prepaid or group legal service plan operated by an organization not owned or directed by the lawyer that uses live person-to-person contact to enroll members or sell subscriptions for the plan from persons who are not known to need legal services in a particular matter covered by the plan.
A prepaid arrangement operated by an organization not owned or directed by a lawyer that provides members access to legal services through a network of attorneys in exchange for periodic payments. The arrangement permits the operator to use live person-to-person contact to enroll subscribers who are not known to need legal services in a particular matter covered by the plan.
A collection of criminal counts arising from the same transaction or occurrence that are treated as a single unit for calculating the applicable offense level at sentencing.
A constitutional assurance that the United States will ensure each state maintains a republican form of government. The assurance appears in Article IV and has been treated as committing enforcement questions to the political branches rather than the courts.
A constitutional provision in Article IV requiring the United States to guarantee every state a republican form of government. Courts treat claims alleging a state's failure to maintain such a form as nonjusticiable political questions committed to Congress and the political branches rather than the judiciary.
Circumstantial factors surrounding an out-of-court statement that demonstrate its reliability. These factors are evaluated under the totality of the circumstances, including the declarant's state of mind and any corroborating evidence, to decide whether the statement may be admitted despite the rule against hearsay.
A person or entity that agrees to be responsible for another’s debt or contractual performance if the other fails to pay or perform. The guarantor’s liability is secondary and arises only after the principal obligor defaults.
A contractual promise by which one party agrees to answer for the debt or default of another if that other fails to perform. The promise is typically made to the obligee and often requires a writing under the statute of frauds.
A contract under which one party undertakes to answer for the debt or default of another if the primary obligor fails to perform.
A constitutional provision obligating the United States to guarantee every state a republican form of government. Claims alleging that a state has failed to maintain such a form present nonjusticiable political questions committed to the political branches rather than the judiciary.
The legal status arising when a court appoints a guardian to manage the property or personal affairs of an individual adjudicated to lack capacity because of mental illness, defect, or minority.
A person appointed by a court to make decisions regarding the support, care, education, health, and welfare of a minor or adult individual who lacks capacity to make such decisions. The appointment confers authority to act on behalf of the ward in personal and financial matters as specified by the court order.
A person invited onto or staying in the premises of another under circumstances that create legal rights or duties for the host. The status turns on the nature of the invitation and the relationship to the premises.
Direction or advice supplied to another in a professional or transactional setting.
A determination by a factfinder or a plea by a defendant establishing that the defendant committed the charged criminal offense.
The culpable mental state that accompanies a prohibited act and supplies the intent or knowledge necessary for criminal liability.
The shared culpable mental states of participants in a criminal agreement. Under common law conspiracy doctrine each conspirator must specifically intend to achieve the same unlawful objective.
A procedural stage in criminal proceedings during which the prosecution and defense discuss potential resolutions through a guilty plea and the court evaluates whether to accept such a plea. The court must address the defendant personally to confirm that the plea is voluntary and not the product of force, threats, or improper promises. Acceptance binds the court once it approves a plea agreement specifying a sentence or sentencing range.
A guilty plea entered by a defendant that a court later permits to be withdrawn. The plea and related statements made during the plea proceeding are inadmissible against that defendant in any subsequent civil or criminal case.
A defendant's formal admission of guilt in a criminal proceeding. The admission must be knowing, voluntary, and supported by a factual basis before the court may accept it and enter judgment.
A metaphor for extreme coercive pressure that leaves the target with no reasonable alternative but to submit. The pressure renders any resulting manifestation of assent or agreement involuntary and subject to avoidance.